Clinic Orientation Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What constitutes a safe, ethical approach to discussing patient finances in a clinic?
• Part A of Medicare is what?
• What should you do with the superbill at checkout?
• At a subsequent visit, which four questions should you ask?
• An exacerbation of a pre-existing chronic condition is AKA which term?
• Which statement best defines an Established patient?
• Which of the following best describes an Established patient?
• Which group corresponds to a visit max of 18 visits?
• If a radiographic requisition form is signed and dated, when must the X-rays be taken?
• What does OIG stand for?
• Under HIPAA, which rights do patients have?
• Which elements are included in a standard SOAP note?
• Is it allowed to check out more than four files at once without any additional documentation?
• Which region does code M99.05 cover?
• Which statement correctly differentiates privacy and confidentiality in clinical practice?
• What is maintenance care?
• What is the process for medication reconciliation at intake?
• To validate a subluxation, you must document two of the PART components, and at least one of them must be ROM or asymmetry.
• What percentage of diagnosis comes from labs/tests/x-ray?
• Who is the only one authorized to provide a super bill no charge (NC)?
• What are the essential steps to document and report safety events or near-misses?
• Which of the following correctly pairs a transmission-based precaution with when it's used?
• Which formula correctly calculates body mass index (BMI)?
• What is a typical normal heart rate range for adults?
• What is the correct diagnosis order for CMS visits?
• Necessity for treatment is best described as which of the following?
• Which group corresponds to a visit max of 24 visits?
• Which statement correctly describes the Medicare file handling at checkout?
• What is the diagnosis order for all other visits (outside CMS)?
• Which steps describe basic wound care instructions and documentation in a clinic visit?
• Which of the following is recommended to prevent look-alike/sound-alike medication errors?
• How should you discuss patient information to protect privacy?
• Which technique is correct for locating the radial pulse?
• What is a primary role of an electronic health record in patient safety and legal compliance?
• Which is NOT a part of the treatment plan?
• Whose signature is required on the superbill used to check out PT equipment?
• Which item must accompany the Medicare blue file at checkout?
• Where does your diagnosis come from?
• For each patient case, what should the intern focus on?
• Which Parker panel includes a lipid panel instead of a thyroid panel?
• What is the term when a chiropractic adjustment is contraindicated?
• What is the recommended chest compression rate for adult CPR?
• Which relationship is included in the clinic's Immediate Family rule prohibiting treatment?
• Which code corresponds to the Lumbar region?
• Which statement best describes how to support patients with limited literacy during medical information sharing?
• General Health 2 Parker Panel has which test in it in place of thyroid testing?
• Which group corresponds to a visit max of 12 visits?
• What sequence best describes a proper incident response to a suspected data breach?
• Which statement best defines Fraud in healthcare?
• To check out a fifth file at the same time, which requirement is needed?
• Which statement lists the five elements that constitute informed consent?
• When a patient requests access to medical records, which action is appropriate?
• For onset N/A, the frequency of visits is:
• Before returning PT equipment, what must you do?
• Are you allowed to treat your boyfriend or girlfriend in the clinic?
• Which statement defines a New patient?
• PQRS applies to which patient population?
• Which option best describes the steps to properly manage a referral and track follow-up?
• Which sequence is the correct doffing order for PPE to minimize self-contamination?
• What is required to check out PT equipment?
• To be classified under recovery care, the functional outcome score (such as NDI) must be at least what percent?
• Which practices support patient privacy in public spaces such as waiting rooms?
• Are files allowed to be removed from the clinic to the Donovan Lounge?
• At checkout, the Medicare blue file should be turned in to which location?
• Part B of Medicare is what?
• Why is recapping needles discouraged?
• Re-examination/re-evaluation (short re-eval) of an established patient corresponds to which CPT code?
• What does one and done stand for?
• Which statement about maintenance care aligns with its purpose?
• How should interpreters be used to overcome language barriers, and what ethical considerations apply?
• Define standard precautions and describe when they apply.
• What is the process for releasing patient information to another provider while protecting privacy?
• What is the difference between a patient portal and an in-person portal for patient engagement?
• The subluxation code is used for what purpose in CMS coding?
• What is a key purpose of recording safety events in a clinic log?
• Which abbreviation is commonly discouraged due to misinterpretation risks?
• Part C is commonly described as which of the following?
• Re-examination of an established patient is also referred to as which term?
• Which statement accurately describes handling prescription medications, OTCs, and samples?
• What is accurate about the AT modifier?
• What best describes patient education and how the teach-back method is used?
• Parker does not get their saliva testing through LabCorp; they get it through which company?
• How should you handle a patient request to discontinue a treatment and what documentation is required?
• Which action is part of documenting and supporting telemedicine visits?
• Which statement best defines Abuse?
• For treatment duration of 4-6 weeks, what is the maximum number of visits?
• If there are 4 sections of the spine involved, which code would apply?
• PART is used to assess a patient in clinic. What four components does PART stand for?
• For a NEW patient with Group A & B conditions such as Pain, Spasms, SP/ST, trigger points, fascitis, and facet issues, which CPT code applies?
• For treatment duration of 8-10 weeks, what is the maximum number of visits?
• What practice helps ensure correct patient identification throughout all steps of care in a clinic?
• What is the clinic’s protocol if a needlestick exposure occurs?
• Which CPT code corresponds to 3-4 sections of the spine?
• CMS (Medicare) will only pay for what codes?
• For treatment duration of 2-4 weeks, what is the maximum number of visits?
• The General Health 1 Parker Panel has which test in it?
• Articular hypermobility, severe demineralization of the bone, benign bone tumors (spine), bleeding disorders and anticoagulant therapy, radiculopathy with progressive neurological signs are all examples of what?
• How many PART components must be documented to validate a subluxation?
• Which statement best describes chain-of-custody for specimens?
• For documentation required by third-party payers, which two diagnoses must be documented?
• Absolute Red Flags include which of the following conditions?
• Is it possible to have more than four files checked out at once?
• Who may authorize radiographic films if your CFD is not available?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a reason for a claim denial?
• Which labeling practice is required for specimens collected in the clinic?
• What is the term for when a patient requires more specialized attention during chiropractic adjustment?
• Is it permissible for another intern to use the PT equipment you checked out after you are done, as long as you return it and it is cleaned?
• What are safe practices for labeling and handling patient specimens for testing?
• What best describes urgent vs non-urgent appointments and how triage affects scheduling?
• Which statement best describes the requirement for documenting chain of custody during specimen labeling in a clinic?
• How should allergies be documented and communicated in the clinic chart?
• What percentage of diagnosis comes from exams?
• For CMS patients, where should the subluxation code be entered on the superbill?
• Exacerbation of a pre-existing chronic condition (long re-evaluation) corresponds to which CPT code?
• Which statement correctly describes where the focus lies in each patient case assessment?
• Which group corresponds to a visit max of 30 visits?
• What is the purpose of documenting the reaction and severity of an allergy?
• Which step is the first action in an effective clinic emergency action plan when a patient collapses?
• The following conditions—acute arthropathies, acute fractures or dislocations (or healed fractures with signs of instability), an unstable os odontoideum, malignancies involving the vertebral column, infection of bones or joints of the vertebral column, myelopathy or cauda equina syndrome, vertebrobasilar insufficiency syndrome, and an artery aneurysm—are examples of what?
• Which term is defined as services that are reasonable and necessary for the diagnosis or treatment of an illness or injury, or to improve the functioning of a malformed member?
• What is the purpose of informed refusal and how should it be documented?
• Which of the following is one of the five moments for hand hygiene according to WHO?
• What percentage of diagnosis comes from history?
• Which code corresponds to 1-2 sections of the spine?
• Which item is NOT part of PART?
• What is true about pharmaceutical samples?
• Describe safe sharps disposal practices in the clinic.
• Which statement best reflects Medicare coverage for physical therapy?
• What is the purpose of an allergy alert in the chart and how should it be used by the care team?
• Which sequence correctly describes the donning of PPE?
• Which statement about diagnosis contributions is correct?
• Which of the following is a common pulse point?
• During AED use in a clinic, after a shock is advised, what should you do?
• Which part of Medicare covers prescription drugs?
• Parts of the Treatment Plan include which of the following?
• What is a normal adult respiratory rate?
• How should a clinic address a patient’s latex allergy in the equipment and supply chain?
• Which of the following is an example of a transmission-based precaution?
• If 80% of the diagnosis comes from history, what is the combined contribution of the remaining sources (exams and labs/x-ray)?
• Which steps are involved in inbound/outbound referrals and ensuring patient follow-up?
• Which QVAS threshold is used to classify recovery care?
• When should you use soap and water versus alcohol-based hand sanitizer?
• Which statement best defines Waste?
• Which Parker panel includes a thyroid panel?
• What is the recommended visit frequency when onset is less than 6 weeks ago?
• Where is the radial pulse located?
• In a clinic, which waste category requires disposal in designated biohazard containers?
• Which statement best reflects the rule for diagnostic testing in the clinic?
• What is the maximum number of files you can check out at one time without special documentation?
• For onset 6-12 weeks ago, what is the recommended visit frequency?
• How should you respond to a latex allergy in the clinic environment?
• How should a clinic respond to a data breach or suspected privacy violation?
• Which elements should be included in the medication reconciliation at intake?
• For a NEW condition/illness/injury in an established patient, which CPT code applies?
• For onset greater than 12 weeks ago, what is the recommended visit frequency?
• What is the purpose of the AT modifier?
• Policy: Up to four files may be checked out at one time without extra documentation.
• Which statement best describes the relationship of the problems list to the chief complaint?
• What modifier is used if an ABN is signed and filed?
• Which statement is true about diastolic blood pressure?
• What is the role of cultural competency and health literacy in patient education?
• How should allergy alerts be utilized in the electronic health record (EHR)?
• Which statement best describes objective measures in a treatment plan?
• Which color file is associated with Medicare?
• What is the primary purpose of HIPAA in a clinic setting?
• Which option is NOT a correct pairing of a CPT code to the number of spine sections it covers?
• How is onset date tracked for CMS patients compared to all other visits?
• In the context of an initial patient visit, the term 'one and done' refers to which of the following?
• Which action best supports infection control when a patient has a contagious illness?
• Which feature of the chart helps ensure safe medication administration related to allergies?
• New Condition/illness/injury of an established patient corresponds to which CPT code?
• Which CPT code corresponds to 5 or more sections of the spine?
• Which Medicare Part covers hospital services?
• How do you verify patient identity before procedures or medication administration?
• For Group C & D conditions in a NEW patient (nerve, disc, and degenerations), which CPT code applies?
• For treatment duration of 6-8 weeks, what is the maximum number of visits?
• Which factors indicate necessity for treatment?
• To be classified under recovery care, the QVAS score must be at least what?
• When a patient requests access to medical records, what steps should you take?
• Which element is included in the level of care in a treatment plan?
• What is the correct characterization of the relationship between the problems list and the Diff Dx list?
• What is the maximum number of days allowed to obtain your CFD signature?
• What is required on the radiographic requisition form before X-rays are taken?
• What does CMS stand for in this context?
• Part C of Medicare is what?
• Which statement about the spine codes 98940, 98941, and 98942 is true?
• A BMI of 28.0 falls into which category?
• Which statement best defines systolic blood pressure?
• Which option correctly represents the diagnosis composition: 80% history, 10% exams, 10% labs/x-ray?
• Which practice best protects patient privacy when interacting in crowded waiting areas?
• What approach should you take if a patient has limited literacy and needs help reading medical information?